Motivation for Angular Momentum

All of the work we have done on Newton's Laws has prepared us to deal with a great many problems in dynamics. However, a large class of problems are still not "possible" for us to do and an even larger class can be made easier if we complete our discussion of rotational dynamics by finding the complete analog of Newton's Second Law of Motion for rotations. By virtue of our success with analogy so far, we could just suggest that we can define a vector quantity, L, such that the torque follows the equation Tnet = dL/dt. This is analogous to Fnet = dp/dt. The quantity L is therefore referred to as the angular momentum. To find the appropriate form for L, we first have to define the direction of the torque. The convention that has been found to be useful is to define the direction of T to be along the axis of rotation. Since there are two possible directions along any line, the convention is to use the right-hand rule to define the direction of T, i.e. you curl the fingers of your right hand along the direction of rotation and your thumb indicates the direction of T along the axis of rotation. This is just a convention, but it is one you will see often in the study of electricity and magnetism. Given this convention, we should define the torque as being T = r x F where the cross product of the two vectors has a magnitude of rF*sin(theta) with theta being the angle between the two vectors and the direction of the cross-product is perpendicular to both r and F.

According to the textbooks in calculus and physics, the cross-product represents the area of a parallelogram defined by sides which have the lengths of r and F. To make use of the cross-product, we have to keep in mind the method for specifying direction in three-dimensional space: with unit vectors along the three orthogonal directions.

You can play around with an interactive, graphical picture of the cross-product by looking at a resource provided by Syracuse University, the vector cross-product tutorial. For our purposes, we only need to know a few things about the cross-product. First, if we define our axes so that two vectors, A and B lie in a plane (which we are always free to do), then if C = A X B, then C is perpendicular to the plane containing A and B. Thus if A and B lie along the plane containing the unit vectors i and j, then C lies only along k.

We also need to know that C is zero if A and B are parallel or anti-parallel. One other thing we need to know is the time derivative of a cross-product. For a general vector, r, the definition of the derivative is exactly what you'd expect,

dr(t)/dt = limdt -> 0[r(t + dt) - r(t)]

It is easy to prove that, for any two vectors dependent on time, u(t) and v(t) that d/dt[u(t) X v(t)] = du(t)/dt X v(t) + u(t) X dv(t)/dt. Therefore, if we want to have a cross-product definition of the angular momentum L that matches our definition of torque, we need L to be r X p where r is the vector from the axis of rotation to the place where the force acts to produce a torque or where the particle having momentum p is located. To see that our choice for the definition of L is consistent with our definition of torque, let's work through the definition.

dL/dt = d/dt[r(t) x p(t)]
= dr(t)/dt x p(t) + r(t) x dp(t)/dt
= v(t) x p(t) + r(t) x F(t)
= 0 + r(t) x F(t) ==>
dL/dt = r(t) x F(t)

where we note that the velocity v and the momentum, mv must always be parallel so the cross product of velocity and momentum is always zero. In terms of our original definition of torque from the work-energy theorem, T = Ialpha (where the direction of alpha is defined the same way as the direction of the torque is defined), we have L = I*omega since we must define alpha = d omega/dt to be consistent with our earlier definitions of angular velocity and angular acceleration.

The importance of the angular momentum comes into play when we attempt to do problems for which the net external force can not be usefully defined to be zero. A typical example is the following problem:

  1. A thin rigid rod of mass M and length h is suspended from a ceiling by a frictionless hinge. A small particle of mass m and initial velocity v0 hits the end of the rod and sticks to it. To what maximum value of theta do the rod and particle subsequently swing?

    Solution: This problem can not be solved by any of our previous methods of dynamics since, at the instant of collision, the hinge exerts a force on the rod just as the particle imparts a force to it. If the rod is rigid, then the application of this force from the hinge is instantaneous. Momentum for the rod and particle is therefore not conserved since the net external force on the system of rod and particle is not zero at the moment of collision. Including the hinge does not help since we do not know exactly how it transmits forces to the ceiling and therefore how the ceiling affects the hinge (and the rod and particle through the hinge). The forces are impractical to calculate so we are stuck. That is, until we notice that the external torque on the system of rod and particle remains zero if we calculate the torque about an axis that goes through the hinge. Since the unknown forces from the ceiling and the rod go through this point, their lever arm is zero no matter what their magnitude or direction. According to our definition of angular momentum, if the external torque is zero, then dL/dt = 0 ==> angular momentum is conserved. Hence, we can relate the angular momentum before the collision to the angular momentum after the collision. Before the collision, the angular momentum is defined by the angular momentum of the particle and the rod relative to the axis of rotation through the hinge, thus

    L0 = Lm + LM
    = r x p + 0
    = mr x v0

    since h is the distance of the particle from the axis of rotation through the hinge at the time of impact. To be consistent with our definition of the direction of omega, we need to relate the angular velocity and the tangential velocity through the relationship, v0, perp = omega x r, i.e. only the part of the velocity that is perpendicular to the position vector, r, contributes to the angular velocity around the axis of rotation (this is a generalization of our understanding of rotational velocity and tangential velocity. See page 342 of the Lerner text). From the figure below, we see that r*sin(phi) = h.

    This is a constant that does not change as m approaches the rod. Thus the angular momentum is constant as we expect before the collision and has a magnitude which equals mv0h. Since there are no external torques until the rod begins to swing upward after the collision, we can apply angular momentum conservation by finding the angular momentum just after the collision. Here the I*omega form of the angular momentum is more useful.

    Lf= ImM omegaf

    The rotational inertia after impact is (1/3)Mh2 + mh2. Since the initial and final angular momenta must be equal, we have the magnitudes as

    L0 = Lf
    mv0h = [(1/3)Mh2 + mh2]omega ==>
    omega = mv0/ (h[(1/3)M + m])

    Since energy is conserved after the collision and the motion is purely rotational, we can find the height to which the center of mass of the rod and the particle rises. The center of mass for both is located at a distance of

    d = [M(h/2) + m(h)]/[M + m]

    down from the hinge. The center-of-mass for the system rises to a height y above the point d below the hinge where y is determined by energy conservation as follows

    (M + m)gy = ½ I*omega2
    = ½ [(1/3)Mh2 + mh2] [m2v02/ (h2[(1/3)M + m])
    = m2v02/ (2[(1/3)M + m]) ==>
    y = m2v02/ (2(M + m) [(1/3)M + m])

    From our original picture, we see that, if the center-of-mass rises by distance y from an original distance d below the hinge, then cos(theta) = (d - y)/d ==> theta = arccos[(d-y)/d] where we have found the values of d and y in terms of masses, h, and the initial velocity.


  2. Some problems don't require the use of angular momentum for a solution, but, respond to its use just the same. Consider the problem of a solid sphere which moves at speed v0 over a smooth surface without rolling. If the sphere encounters a rough surface whose coefficient of friction is mu, show that rolling without slipping happens when the sphere has slowed to a speed of 5v0/7.

    Solution: There are two possible approaches to the solution. First, let's consider the "straightforward" way of doing this. We can't use energy conservation since we know that friction reduces the energy of the system. If it were static friction acting, we would know that the work done by friction just goes into rotating the sphere, but, since the sphere is definitely slipping before pure rolling occurs, we must have kinetic friction acting and all bets are off as far as energy conservation is concerned.

    First, we need a reasonably good picture.

    With that accomplished, we can see that the transition from sliding to rolling involves going from kinetic friction to static friction. As the sphere slides over the rough area, the kinetic friction creates a torque about an axis of rotation which goes through the center of the sphere (and is perpendicular to the page). This friction creates an deceleration and the torque due to friction creates an angular acceleration. The deceleration slows down the velocity of the center-of-mass while the angular acceleration "spins up" the angular velocity. Pure rolling (i.e. rolling without slipping) occurs when the angular velocity, w, is equal to the final translational velocity, vf, divided by R.

    translation: fk = Ma ==>
    muMg = Ma ==>
    a = mug
    rotation: fkR = I*alpha ==>
    muMgR = (2/5)MR2*alpha ==>
    alpha = (5/2)mug/R

    Note that the acceleration and the angular acceleration are constant, so we can use the equations for motion to find the velocity and angular velocity as functions of time. Remembering that the final velocity, vf and the final angular velocity are related by wf = vf/R,

    vf = v0 - at
    = v0 - mukgt
    wf = w0 + alpha*t
    vf/R = 0 + (5/2)mugt/R ==>
    v0 - mukgt = (5/2)mugt ==>
    v0 = (7/2)mugt ==>
    t = (2/7)v0/ (mug)

    Plugging this value for the time for pure rolling to start back into our first equation for motion yields

    vf = v0 - at
    vf = v0 - (mug)(2v0/ (7mug))
    vf = (5/7)v0

    So the velocity of the CM slows to 5/7 of the original speed before pure rolling begins. Until this point, slipping and rolling are occurring.

    So what's the connection to angular momentum? We can, if you look at a little define the angular momentum for an object that is both translating and rotating just as we defined the kinetic energy. You might guess, and you would be correct, that the form of the angular momentum with respect to a point, for an object that is both rotating and moving translationally, is

    L = Ltrans. + Lrot.

    where Lrot. is defined w.r.t. to the center-of-mass (the proof of this isn't hard, basically it proceeds the same way as the proof that kinetic energy for a rotating system equals KCM + Krot. where Krot. is the rotational kinetic energy relative to the CM. See Chap. 11 for a proof of the kinetic energy theorem. It's a good exercise for you to work out the similar proof for angular momentum!).

    The angular momentum of a rotating body w.r.t. its CM is ICM*w where w is the angular velocity and ICM, as always, is the rotational inertia around the center-of-mass.

    We can make use of this general definition of angular momentum to solve our problem rather quickly. First, let's calculate the initial angular momentum w.r.t. the point on the surface where friction first occurs (see the figure below).

    The initial angular momentum is

    L0 = Mv0R

    Since the initial velocity of the CM is perpendicular to the radial vector, r, from the point where we make the calculation to the CM point and there is initially no rotation. For the point where pure rolling occurs we have both motion of the CM and rotational motion of the sphere so

    Lf = Mvfr*sin(theta) + I*wf

    Note that, as before with the point mass and the stick, the straight-line motion of the center-of-mass leads to an angular momentum contribution of MvfR. The rotational term yields

    I*wf = (2/5)MR2(vf/R) = (2/5)MvfR

    Now, note something special! What is the torque about an axis that goes through the point where we are calculating the angular momentum? The weight and the normal force due to the surface cancel so they yield no net torque. The kinetic friction also yields no net torque since the angle between the vector from the ang. mom. reference point to the point where the friction acts is 180° , thus the angular momentum about this point is conserved!!!

    So, now we just do a little algebra,

    L0 =Lf
    Mv0R = MvfR + (2/5)MvfR ==>
    Mv0R = MvfR + (2/5)MvfR ==>
    v0 = (7/5)vf ==>
    (5/7)v0 = vf

    OK. So you might not have thought of doing the problem this way, but, the point is that conservation rules come in handy in neat ways in all kinds of problems. They usually simplify a problem a great deal if you realize where you can use them. Angular momentum is especially useful in calculations involving quantum mechanics.



    larryg@upenn5.hep.upenn.edu
    Hits since 4/1/97: